BIOL 133 Week 2 Exam | Assignment Help | APUS
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BIOL 133 Week 2 Exam | Assignment Help | APUS
Week 2 Exam
Question 1 of 40
A human fertilized egg
contains one chromosome with HbS, the allele for sickle cell disease, and a
homologous chromosome with Hbs, the wildtype allele. It also contains an X and
Y chromosome. At what point will meiosis occur to create cells that are either
HbS or Hbs ?
o
Within the hour, as fertilization
proceeds.
o
Within the week, as embryonic development
proceeds.
o
Years later, when gametogenesis proceeds.
o
Decades later, in the grandchildren of
this individual.
Question 2 of 40
How does metaphase in
meiosis I and meiosis II differ?
o
Sister chromatids are on the metaphase
plate in meiosis I and tetrads are on the metaphase plate in meiosis II.
o
Homologous chromosomes line up in meiosis
I and duplicated chromosomes line up in meiosis II.
o
All chromatids are the exact same in
meiosis I and differ in meiosis II due to independent assortment
o
The ploidy level remains the same in
meiosis I but will be reduced in meiosis II.
Which event is similar
between prophase I and prophase? Select all that apply.
o
The nuclear membrane begins to
disintegrate
o
Spindle fibers appear
o
Each chromosome is composed of two
chromatids
o
Chromosomes condense
o
Each chromosome has potentially
experienced crossover
o
Tetrads are present
Question 4 of 40
________ is the substrate
for adenylyl cylcase.
o
cAMP
o
GTP
o
GDP
o
ATP
o
ADP
Question 5 of 40
In the quest to
understand the basis of infertility in humans, researchers have identified a
mutation in a gene associated with chiasmata. This protein normally acts to
promote homologous recombination.
Why might a defect in
homologous recombination have consequences for fertility?
o
A checkpoint requires a certain level of
genetic variability for meiosis to proceed.
o
Chiasmata are the connections between the
centromeres and the centrosomes that pull them to each pole of the daughter
cells.
o
Crossover formation is a necessary step in
meiosis I to ensure proper chromosome segregation.
o
The chiasma checkpoint halts the whole
process of meiosis if crossovers do not form properly.
____________ carbon
dioxide molecules are given off during three turns of the Krebs cycle?
o
1
o
2
o
3
o
4
o
6
Question 7 of 40
When a ligand binds to a
G protein-linked receptor, the G protein
o
hydrolyzes GDP
o
releases a hormone
o
binds to a signal molecule
o
is activated
Question 8 of 40
Which environment would
tend to have plants with the broadest leaves?
o
tropical rainforest canopy
o
tropical rainforest floor
o
desert
o
midwestern prairie
Question 9 of 40
Which statement describes
the relationship of cancer control genes?
o
Proto-oncogenes and tumor suppressor genes
increase cell division
o
Proto-oncogenes and tumor suppressor genes
decrease cell division
o
Proto-oncogenes increase cell division and
tumor suppressor genes decrease cell division
o
Proto-oncogenes decrease cell division and
tumor suppressor genes increase cell division
Question 10 of 40
P700 first transfers an
electron through chlorophyll and abound
o
quinone
o
ferredoxin
o
2Fe-2S
o
plastocyanin
Question 11 of 40
In the Calvin Cycle,
carbon from carbon dioxide is fixed to what molecule first?
o
glucose
o
pyruvate
o
3-PGA
o
G3P
o
RuBP
Question 12 of 40
________ are ligands,
which promote cell growth.
o
Apoptosis
o
Inhibitors
o
Growth factors
o
Autoinducers
o
ability to reduce NADP+
o
ability to absorb photons
o
ability to fix carbon
o
ability to split water
Question 14 of 40
Chromosome duplication
occurs for the beginning of which process? Select all that apply.
o
mitosis
o
meiosis I
o
meiosis II
o
interkinesis
o
cytokinesis
Question 15 of 40
Normal watermelons (n=11)
are diploid.
o
22
o
11
1. How many chromosomes
are in a normal watermelon somatic cell? _________
2. How many chromosomes
are in a sperm cell? _________
Question 16 of 40
In the energy-requiring
steps of glycolysis what are some reactants and products?
o
produces 4 ATP and uses 4 ADP
o
produces 2 ATP and uses 2 ADP
o
uses 2 ATP and produces 2 ADP
o
uses 2ATP and uses 2 ADP
What association is
correct? Select all that apply
o
phosphorylase-breakdown of glucose
o
adenylyl cyclase-ATP to cAMP
o
kinase-addition of phosphate
o
phospholipase C-breakdown of PIP2
o
phosphodiesterase- removal of phosphate
Question 18 of 40
Which event most
accurately describes cytokinesis?
o
Cell walls prevent cleavage furrow from
deepening.
o
Actin molecules are used to develop the
cell plate.
o
The metaphase plate is the beginning area
for cytokinesis
o
Phragmoplast develop in animal cells at
the metaphase plate.
o
Cytokinesis can begin as early as
metaphase.
The majority of the
energy remains in what glycolytic final product?
o
NADH
o
ATP
o
pyruvate
o
glyceraldhyde 3-phosphate
o
phosphoenolpyruvate
The net results of
glycolysis are
o
1 NADH and 1 ATP
o
2 NADH and 2 ATP
o
4 NADH and 2 ATP
o
2 NADH and 4 ATP
Question 21 of 40
What determines the
maximum theoretical yield of ATP during glucose catabolism?
o
How the NADH made during glycolysis enter
the mitochondria
o
How the FADH2 made during glycolysis enter
the mitochondria
o
NADH oxidizing at complex I or complex II
o
FADH2 oxidizing at complex I or complex II
A cell’s entire amount of
hereditary information is the
o
nucleoid
o
nucleus
o
genome
o
DNA
Which event may lead to
cancer? Select all that apply.
o
gene mutation
o
functioning p53 protein
o
Rb protein phosphorylating
o
Improper replication of DNA during
synthesis
o
faulty DNA repair
Question 24 of 40
The reduction of NADP+ →
NADPH occurs because there are
o
electrons from water and energy from ATP
o
electrons from carbon dioxide and energy
from ATP
o
electrons from carbon dioxide and energy
from sunlight
o
electrons from water and energy from
sunlight
Question 25 of 40
Why is sexual
reproduction still around? (Choose all that apply)
o
fitness of the population
o
populates areas rapidly
o
cost of meiosis
o
frequency dependent relationship between
hosts and parasites
o
limited genetic diversity
Question 26 of 40
Light-dependent reactions
build NADPH and oxygen by ________________ .
o
oxidation
o
reduction
o
oxidation and reduction
Phosphofructokinase, a
controlling enzyme of glycolysis, is inhibited by ___ and activated by ___.
o
ATP;ADP
o
ADP;ATP
o
ADP;NADH
o
NADH;ATP
o
NADH;ADP
Question 28 of 40
The electron transport
chain between photosystem II and photosystem I generate a proton gradient which
drives ATP synthase known as
o
osmosis
o
diffusion
o
active transport
o
chemiosmosis
Question 29 of 40
Charles Darwin was
plagued by a mysterious chronic disease. It had a variety of symptoms including
nausea, fatigue, and neurological problems that sometimes incapacitated him for
weeks. His voyage on the Beagle is even more remarkable considering the misery
of his “seasickness” during the trip.
Based on his symptoms and
those of family members, it is thought that Darwin may have suffered from a
defect in mitochondrial DNA. What is the likely consequence of such a defect?
o
failure to replicate DNA in reproductive
tissues
o
elevated ATP production in critical body
organs
o
reduced ATP production throughout the body
o
low pyruvate production due to failure of
glycolysis
o
vitamin B overdose
Question 30 of 40
What statement shows the
relationship among chloroplasts and mitochondria?
o
both generate ATP by proton gradient
o
both release carbon dioxide
o
both use oxygen as the final electron
acceptor
o
both reduce NADP+
Question 31 of 40
C6H12O6 + 6O2 → 6H2O +
6CO2 is an example of ____________. (This question refers to what is occurring
on the right side of the reaction.)
o
anabolism
o
synthesis
o
reduction
o
oxidation
Question 32 of 40
What is not a good
biological oxidizing agent?
o
Fe3+
o
O2
o
NAD+
o
FAD
Question 33 of 40
A human sperm will
contain _________ chromosomes.
o
23
o
46
o
23 pairs of
o
46 pairs of
Question 34 of 40
If a researcher looks at
a cell and notices a straight line of sister chromatids, which phase are they
viewing?
o
interphase
o
prophase
o
prometaphase
o
metaphase
o
anaphase
o
telophase
Question 35 of 40
Inositol phospholipids
are (select all that apply)
o
present in large concentrations in the
plasma membrane
o
can be converted to second messengers
o
can interact directly with DNA in the
nucleus D. located near membrane-bound receptors
Question 36 of 40
Teeth can have a biofilm
formed on the surface. Cell signaling will
o
cause apoptosis
o
cause uncontrolled cell division
o
increase cell quantity
o
cause increase saliva production
What is the minimum
number of chiasmata in a tetrad?
o
1
o
2
o
3
o
4
Question 38 of 40
Depolarization of one
group of smooth muscle cells rapidly spreads to other smooth muscle cells,
leading to coordinated contractions. This electrical coupling is due to
o
autocrine signaling
o
paracrine signaling
o
endocrine signaling
o
direct signaling
Question 39 of 40
In vertebrate immune
systems, some t-lymphocytes will make a growth factor that drives their own
division. This represents
o
paracrine signaling
o
direct signalling
o
endocrine signaling
o
autocrine signaling
Question 40 of 40
When the p53 gene is
damaged, which event may happen?
o
Cells can divide uncontrollably
o
Cells will fix the DNA pass the G1
checkpoint
o
Cells will pass the G2 checkpoint
o
Cells will always undergo apoptosis
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