CRJ 210 WEEK 5 QUIZ
1 Which statement most accurately reflects the average dollar loss per robbery offense in the United States?
a. $4,169
b. $913
c. $53
d. $1,321
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2. Which are examples of robbers?
a. A pickpocket, a "roller" of a child's lunch money, a person who steals money when the owner is away, and a street mugger
b. A "roller" of a child's lunch money, and a street mugger
c. A pickpocket, and a person who steals money when the owner is away
d. A "roller" of a child's lunch money, a person who steals money when the owner is away, and a street mugger
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3. What is the most common type of robbery?
a. Robberies after a brief acquaintance
b. Convenience store robberies
c. Street muggings
d. Robberies of private premises
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4. Which best describes the typical commercial robbery?
a. The victimized store is large and busy.
b. The robbery occurs in the middle of the day.
c. The robbery is carried out by masked perpetrators.
d. The victimized store is located on a major street.
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5. Who is the most likely target of a street mugging?
a. A middle-aged, black male
b. A young, attractive woman
c. A Hispanic
d. An elderly person
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6. Which is true regarding home robberies?
a. The majority of home robbers steal valuable property.
b. Most home robbers act alone.
c. 54 percent of home robberies are committed by acquaintances.
d. Younger victims are more likely to be attacked than are older ones.
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7. Which is the best example of the "smash and grab" robbery?
a. A taxi cab is side swiped and then robbed at a busy intersection of a large city.
b. An expensive car in a parking lot is stolen by robbers posing as tow truck drivers.
c. A stopped car at an exit ramp near an airport is approached, a window is broken, and the occupant is robbed.
d. A delivery truck is bumped from behind and then robbed.
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8. Which is recommended for the first officer to reach the scene of a robbery in progress?
a. Park as close as is reasonably possible to the scene.
b. Cover the most likely exit from the robbery location.
c. Leave the keys in the ignition and approach quickly.
d. Cautiously attempt to apprehend the suspect(s).
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9. Which is the best example of bait money?
a. Money with pre-recorded serial numbers kept at a bank.
b. Money provided to undercover officers to pay informants.
c. Money paid to witnesses to encourage them to testify.
d. Money left on a desk at work to lure would be robbers.
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10. When responding to a robbery in progress at a local gas convenience store, what should the first officer at the scene do if the robbery is still in progress with the suspect inside?
a. Enter cautiously and eliminate the deadly threat using whatever force is reasonable
b. Announce your presence to the suspect and demand that he or she surrender
c. Do not enter the store until the robbery suspect has exited
d. None of the above tactics is correct.
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11. When responding to calls in which the robbers have already left the scene, officers must prioritize their actions. What should they do first?
a. Protect other evidence
b. Locate witnesses and take statements regarding descriptions of the suspects and their vehicles so that a "flash: description can be broadcast
c. Take care of any injured parties
d. Protect the possible locations of fingerprints
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12. An MO focuses on the behavior of the criminal during the commission of a crime. For example, the location of the robbery, such as a bank or convenience store, may identify certain groups of suspects. Other factors include:
a. the physical description of the suspect.
b. the color of the get-away vehicle.
c. the type of weapon used.
d. All of the above
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13. Which is not an accurate statement regarding the crime of assault?
a. It is necessary for the victim to wait until he or she has been physically assaulted before acting in self defense.
b. Finding the perpetrator in cases of assault is generally an easy task for police to accomplish.
c. About seventy percent of assault victims are acquainted with their attackers.
d. The crime of assault has decreased in the last decade.
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14. Which are the typical weapons used in aggravated assault cases?
a. Firearms
b. Hands, fists, and feet
c. Knives
d. Illegal Drugs
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15. Which legal elements are necessary for the crime of simple assault to occur?
a. A threat by the aggressor to cause bodily harm or death to another, and serious bodily injury
b. A threat by the aggressor to cause bodily harm or death to another, and a purposeful intent to inflict bodily harm on another
c. A purposeful intent to inflict bodily harm on another, and serious bodily injury
d. A threat by the aggressor to cause bodily harm or death to another, a purposeful intent to inflict bodily harm on another, and serious bodily injury
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16. Tim Burns fears for his life from an attacker. Which rule must he follow in defending himself from his attacker?
a. Tim is obligated to first attempt to retreat from the attack even if he cannot ascertain any way to do so.
b. Tim must use only the degree of force necessary to stop his attacker.
c. Tim must wait until he has actually been physically assaulted before acting in self defense.
d. Tim is obligated to render first aid to his attacker if the attacker is injured while committing the assault.
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17. Which is the correct order of tasks an officer should accomplish upon arriving at the scene of an assault after the perpetrator has left?
a. Administer first aid; protect the crime scene; begin initial questioning; search the crime scene
b. Protect the crime scene; begin initial questioning; protect the crime scene; search the crime scene
c. Search the crime scene; protect the crime scene; begin initial questioning; administer first aid
d. Protect the crime scene; search the crime scene; administer first aid; begin initial questioning
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18. The three broad categories of stalking are based on the relationship between the stalker and the victim. They include intimate or former intimate stalking, strange stalking, and:
a. famous or "star" stalking.
b. family stalking.
c. acquaintance stalking.
d. None of the above
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19. Which types of abuse listed below are included in the general definition of abuse?
a. Psychological and financial
b. Financial and emotional
c. Psychological and emotional
d. Psychological, financial, and emotional
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20. Which is the best interpretation of the "no-drop" policy that has been adopted in several states?
a. Arrested persons under domestic abuse laws must not "drop" child support payments prior to trial.
b. Once a person accuses another of abuse, that person always agrees to testify should the case come to trial.
c. Battered children must not be dropped off in foster care until the batterer is prosecuted in a court of law.
d. If a battered wife refuses to testify against her batterer in court, officers may use 911 tapes instead in order to ensure the prosecution of the offender continues.
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21. Which is not true regarding protection orders against abusive husbands and boyfriends?
a. A jail term generally accompanies a protection order against an abusive partner.
b. All fifty states now have protection orders.
c. Protection orders can be issued the same day on which the abuse occurred.
d. Protection orders always protect victims from further abuse or even death.
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22. Once officers have entered the location of a domestic violence call and have secured the area, the first rule is to:
a. interview the suspect and victim separately without giving Miranda warnings to either.
b. interview the suspect and victim separately with Miranda warnings given to both, as it cannot be determined who is the primary physical aggressor at this point in the investigation.
c. interview the suspect and victim separately with Miranda warnings given to the suspect.
d. interview the suspect and victim separately with Miranda warnings given to the victim to protect his or her rights of spousal privilege.
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23. The Uniform Crime Report (UCR) defines a forcible rape as:
a. a sexual assault.
b. the carnal knowledge of a female forcibly and against her will.
c. sexual intercourse without the consent of the person.
d. the carnal knowledge of another person forcibly and against her will.
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24. Which is an accurate statement about forcible rape in the United States?
a. Rape is usually caused by the perpetrator's unfulfilled need for sexual gratification.
b. The incidence of forcible rape has been growing dramatically in the last decade.
c. Approximately one to six percent of rape charges are falsely made.
d. According to the UCR, rape victims can be of either gender.
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25. What is the estimated percentage of rapes reported to police?
a. 10
b. 40
c. 68
d. 25
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26. Which is the first duty for police officers who arrive at the scene of a rape?
a. Conduct the interview, but do not write anything down at this point
b. Obtain physical evidence from the victim such as clothes, ligatures, or weapons
c. Accompany the victim to the hospital and remain discreetly present during the physical exam
d. Aid the victim and obtain medical attention at once if required
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27. Office Shultz is a rape investigator who will be conducting the follow-up interview with a rape victim. Which is not recommended for Officer Shultz to do during the follow-up interview?
a. Conduct the interview with an efficient, business-like tone
b. Allow the victim to describe what occurred in her own words and without interruption
c. Allow the victims a ventilation period following opening remarks
d. Explore previous relationship or prior consensual sexual relations with the offender.
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28. Sam is a typical fetishist. Which is least likely true about Sam?
a. He is sexually attracted to women's clothing.
b. He uses a fetish object during masturbation.
c. He steals to acquire sexual gratification.
d. He is a sexually dysfunctional elderly male.
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29. Which drug is associated with date rapes?
a. Ritalin
b. Prozac
c. Rohypnol
d. Viagra
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30. Which are the basic elements of the crime of rape?
a. Penetration by penis (carnal knowledge), lack of consent, and forcible submission
b. Penetration by penis (carnal knowledge), and lack of consent
c. Lack of consent, and forcible submission
d. Penetration by penis (carnal knowledge), and forcible submission
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31. Which descriptions fit the typical exhibitionist?
a. White, single, mid-twenties, and average intelligence
b. Single, mid-twenties, and average intelligence
c. Single, and average intelligence
d. White, and mid-twenties
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32. Nicholas Groth conducted research in what area?
a. Fetishism and exhibitionism
b. Obsessive-compulsive disorders
c. Typologies of rapists
d. Pyromania as a sexual dysfunction
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33. Hector steps out of a side alley and stops a passing woman by grabbing her arm. He then speaks to her in a threatening manner for approximately one minute before pushing her to the concrete and raping her. Which method of approach has Hector used?
a. Blitz approach
b. Surprise approach
c. Con approach
d. Stealth approach
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34. According to Hazelwood and Burgess, what are the four levels of severity (in ascending order) regarding the use of force?
a. Assertive, power, angry, excitation
b. Power, assertive, angry excitation
c. Assertive, angry, power, excitation
d. Minimal, moderate, excessive, brutal
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35. The power-reassurance (manhood) rapist accounts for what percentage of all rapes?
a. 81
b. 19
c. 24
d. 76
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