CRJ 210 WEEK 4 QUIZ

CRJ 210 WEEK 4 QUIZ
1	Which Supreme Court interpretations are exceptions to the exclusionary rule?
a.   Second-party consent and inevitable discovery
b.   God faith, inevitable discovery, and computer errors
c.   Good faith and computer errors
d.   Good faith, second-party consent, inevitable discovery, and computer errors
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2.	Which is the best interpretation of the 1991 Acevedo case?
a.   Items that fall in the plain view of a lawfully present police officer may be seized and used as evidence in court.
b.   An officer may search a vehicle without a search warrant provided that she has probable cause to think the vehicle contains contraband and that the vehicle is mobile.
c.   Officers may not move any item to get a better view of evidence otherwise hidden from view
d.   An officer who has probable cause to believe that a container in a vehicle holds contraband may open the container and seize the contraband.
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3.	Which piece of information will not be included on the search warrant affidavit?
a.   Reasons to request the search
b.   Who owns the searched for item
c.   The item being searched
d.   Where the search will occur
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4.	Citizens are guaranteed privileges and immunities as citizens of the United States, due process of law, and equal protection under the law under which U.S. Amendment that was passed in 1868?
a.   The Fourth Amendment
b.   The Fifth Amendment
c.   The Fourteenth Amendment
d.   The First Amendment
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5.	Which rule was established by the Chimel case (1969)?
a.   The totality of the circumstances may be considered in establishing probable cause to arrest.
b.   After making an arrest, police may search the defendant and the area within the defendant's immediate control.
c.   The cardboard box "home" of a homeless person may not be searched without his or her permission.
d.   The room of an overnight guest may not be searched without the guest's consent, even if the homeowner has allowed police to enter and search.
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6.	Which is true regarding arrests in the United States?
a.   An arrest is not valid unless the officer uses the term "arrest" to the suspect.
b.   Making an arrest is a dangerous action for a police officer to undertake.
c.   Generally, an arrest warrant is not necessary for misdemeanors.
d.   Both felony and misdemeanor arrest warrants are authorized for day and night service.
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7.	Which situation below expresses the nature of an arrest?
a.   A police officer has reasonable suspicion that the suspect committed the theft of a purse.
b.   An officer asks a man standing near a bus stop, "Sir, may I see your driver's license?"
c.   A police officer investigating a theft places the suspect in handcuffs but does not tell her that she is under arrest.
d.   A police officer investigating a loud music complaint asks the person who answers the door if he is the owner of the house.
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8.	Which best describes the results of the Christopher Commission?
a.   Guidelines that police are to exercise the minimum amount of force necessary to control a suspect
b.   Definitions of the term arrest
c.   Recommendations for off-duty officers who witness a crime in commission
d.   Descriptions of the "deadly force triangle"
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9.	Which are examples of excessive force used by a police officer?
a.   Using a firearm against an armed suspect with a knife, who just stabbed a store clerk and won't put the knife down, and who is telling the officer he is going to kill the officer
b.   Chemical gas used against a protester who refuses to leave a courtroom
c.   Using a taser on a 12 year old middle school student who spits at the police officer
d.   Both b and c
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10.	When a police officer is compelled to use force, which standard or standards will courts use when determining whether such force was reasonable?
a.   "Standing in your shoes"
b.   "Standing in your shoes" and "The actions of a reasonable officer"
c.   "The actions of a reasonable officer" and "Triangle of deadly force"
d.   "Standing in your shoes," "The actions of a reasonable officer," and "Triangle of deadly force"
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11.	Which Supreme Court Case redefined the "fleeing felon rule?"
a.   Riverside v. McLaughlin
b.   Tennessee v. Garner
c.   Draper v. United States
d.   Graham v. Connor
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12.	Bill Monroe matches a description of a burglary suspect from an incident that occurred last night. Monroe is stopped by a police officer and is asked questions about his activities the night before. Monroe believes he cannot leave; thus he stays and answers the officer's questions. Which is best illustrated by this scenario?
a.   An arrest
b.   A consensual encounter
c.   A contact
d.   An investigative detention
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13.	Which of the following statements is most true regarding the fleeing felon rule?
a.   The use of deadly force against unarmed, nonviolent felons who are fleeing is lawful.
b.   Based on Tennessee v. Garner (1985), police may never use deadly force when making an arrest.
c.   Based on Tennessee v. Garner (1985), fleeing felons may be apprehended by any means necessary.
d.   The use of deadly force against unarmed, nonviolent felons who are fleeing is unlawful.
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14.	Which is the most accurate statistic regarding wrongful deaths in the United States?
a.   Around one-third of murder victims are females, and two-thirds are males.
b.   Ninety percent of all murders are committed with firearms.
c.   An estimated 85 percent of people murdered knew his or her assailant.
d.   Half of all female victims in recent years were killed by husbands or boyfriends.
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15.	Which is an accurate trend relating to wrongful deaths in the United States?
a.   The UCR estimated that there was a decrease in the murder rate of 0.6 percent from the previous year.
b.   Murder rates tend to increase in winter and decrease as spring approaches.
c.   Urban murder rates are almost three times as great as are rural murder rates.
d.   Approximately 35,000 people are murdered each year.
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16.	In the late spring of 1998, a high-school student in Oregon killed his parents at their home and the drove to his school, where he killed two fellow students. Which best describes these wrongful deaths?
a.   A serial murder
b.   A spree
c.   A mass murder
d.   A crime of passion
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17.	A man locked his child in the car on a hot day with the windows rolled up while he went shopping. When he returned two hours later, he found that the child had died. With which crime will he most probably be charged?
a.   First-degree murder
b.   Voluntary manslaughter
c.   Second-degree murder
d.   Involuntary manslaughter
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18.	Upon arriving at a potential murder scene, which is the patrol officer's greatest priority?
a.   Finding out if the perpetrator is still nearby
b.   Determining if the victim is dead or needs aid
c.   Detaining witnesses and writing down their names
d.   Safeguarding the crime scene from deterioration
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19.	Which aspect of homicide investigations is most prone to error?
a.   Preserving the crime scene
b.   Determining the cause of death
c.   Apprehending the perpetrator
d.   Locating reliable witnesses
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20.	Officer Simmons notices that a murder victim's wounds indicate severe bleeding, but she also detects little blood near the body. Which is her best conclusion based on these facts?
a.   The wound was caused by a very thin, sharp knife.
b.   The perpetrator cleaned the body to remove evidence.
c.   The victim died very quickly, thus reducing blood flow.
d.   The body was moved from the place of death.
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21.	Which is the best indicator of the process of lividity in a deceased person?
a.   A purplish color forms on the skin.
b.   A milky substance forms in the eyes.
c.   The body temperature cools rapidly.
d.   The body becomes extremely stiff.
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22.	Which is true regarding exit wounds?
a.   They cause tattooing.
b.   They have a small amount of blood.
c.   They have a smudging ring.
d.   They have a ragged appearance.
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23.	Which best describes VI-CAP?
a.   A suicide hotline in major urban areas
b.   A program designed to prevent autoerotic deaths
c.   A computer information clearinghouse for violent serial crimes
d.   A recent FBI study of serial murderers
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24.	Which category of death is associated with drowning, falling, automobile wrecks, and drug overdose?
a.   Suicide
b.   Murder
c.   Accidental death
d.   Natural death
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25.	Which category of death is associated with stabbing, shooting, drug overdose, and carbon monoxide poisoning?
a.   Murder
b.   Suicide
c.   Accidental death
d.   Natural death
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26.	Which category of death is associated with wounds from handguns and shotguns, cutting and stabbing wounds, blunt-force injuries, and extraordinary modes of death, such as poisoning and death by asphyxia?
a.   Natural death
b.   Suicide
c.   Accidental death
d.   Murder
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27.	The first officer to respond to a suspected homicide call is generally a patrol officer arriving a short time after the call is received. The actions taken at the time of arrival may have a critical bearing on the subsequent course of the investigation. Responding officers might encounter:
a.   a killer who might either still be on the scene or may have just exited.
b.   a man who directs the officer to the crime scene.
c.   a crime scene that might be filled with people milling around, acting confused.
d.   All of the above
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28.	After the preliminary duties have been performed at a homicide scene, the responding officer must immediately _______.
a.   protect the crime scene.
b.   seize any evidence readily visible.
c.   begin the interview of possible suspects after reading Miranda Warnings.
d.   None of the above
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29.	Skeletonization occurs in which of the following stages of decomposition?
a.   The Putrefaction Stage
b.   The Black Putrefaction Stage
c.   The Butyric Fermentation Stage
d.   The Dry Decay Stage
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30.	Bodies found in air decompose _______ as fast as those found submerged in water.
a.   equally
b.   twice
c.   three times
d.   four times