CIS 500 WEEK 11
Q Problem management is an important process in the service operation lifecycle stage. How does the process define a problem?
A. A problem is an incident that has become extremely serious and is causing significant business impact.
B. A problem is an issue that has no solution and needs to be raised to the senior management for a decision.
C. A problem is the unknown, underlying cause of one or more incidents.
D. A problem is a set of incidents that have been linked together in a customer report.
Q: Which of the following is NOT a main Problem Review check?
A. How to avoid failure
B. Things that were finished properly
C. How to avoid recurrence
D. Things that were done wrongly
Q: Which of the following data is least expected to be used in the Incident Control Process?
A. Incident category
B. Impact code
C. Cost of faulty item
D. Model of faulty item
Q: Which of the following is an input to the Problem Management process?
A. Management information
B. A Request for Change (RFC)
C. Configuration details from the Configuration Management Database
D. Known Errors
Q: Incident management aims to restore normal service operation as quickly as possible. How is normal service operation defined?
A. It is the level of service that the technical management staff members say is reasonable.
B. It is the level of service defined in the SLA.
C. It is the level of service that IT believes is optimal.
D. It is the level of service that the user requires.
Q: Which of the following is the basis of the ITIL approach to Service Management?
A. Rules and Responsibilities
B. Departments
C. IT resources
D. Interrelated activities
Q: What are the two major processes in Problem Management?
A. Proactive and Reactive
B. Active and Reactive
C. Resource and Proactive
D. Reactive and Technical
Q: Which of the following is not a satisfactory resolution to an incident?
A. A user complains of poor response; a reboot speeds up the response.
B. The service desk takes control of the user's machine remotely and shows the user how to run the report they were having difficulty with.
C. The service desk uses the KEDB to provide a workaround to restore the service.
D. A user complains of poor response; second-line support runs diagnostics to be able to monitor it the next time it occurs.
Q: A service management tool has the ability to store templates for common incidents that define the steps to be taken to resolve the fault. What are these called?
A. Incident models
B. Incident categories
C. Major incidents
D. Minor incidents
Q: Which of the following corrects the underlying root causes by using a process called Root Cause Analysis (RCA)?
A. Incident Management
B. Capacity Management
C. Supplier Management
D. Problem Management
Q: Which ITIL process is related with a Post Implementation Review?
A. Release Management
B. Problem Management
C. Application Management
D. Incident Management
Q: Which is the best description of an incident?
A. An unplanned interruption to an IT service or reduction in the quality of an IT service
B. An event that has significance and impacts the service
C. A user error
D. A fault that causes failures in the IT infrastructure
Q: Problem management can produce which of the following?
1. Known errors
2. Workarounds
3. Resolutions
4. RFCs
A. 1 and 4
B. All the answers are correct.
C. 1, 2, and 4
D. 1 and 3
Q: What is the best definition of a problem?
A. An incident that the service desk does not know how to fix
B. A fault that will require a change to resolve
C. The cause of one or more incidents
D. The result of a failed change
Q: Which of the following is an input to the Problem Management process?
A. Incident Records
B. Request for Change
C. Known Errors
D. KPIs
Q: Which incidents should be logged?
A. Minor incidents
B. All incidents that resulted from a user contacting the service desk
C. Major incidents
D. All incidents
Q: Which process will on a regular basis evaluate incident data to identify discernable trends?
A. Problem Management
B. Service Level Management
C. Change Management
D. Event Management
Q: Which of the following are types of incident escalation defined by ITIL?
1. Hierarchical
2. Management
3. Functional
4. Technical
A. 1 and 4
B. 1 and 3
C. 1, 2, and 4
D. All the answers are correct.
Q: In the ITIL guidance on incident management, what is one of the key purposes of the incident management process?
A. The purpose of incident management is to prevent incidents from occurring by identifying the root cause.
B. The purpose of incident management is to prevent changes from causing incidents when a change is implemented
C. The purpose of incident management is to ensure that the service desk fulfills all requests from users.
D. The purpose of incident management is to restore normal service operation as quickly as possible.
Q: Which of the following takes possession for an incident and behaves as the primary level of escalation?
A. Release Management
B. Configuration Management
C. Capacity Management
D. Incident Management
Q: Which of the following statements best describes a Problem?
A. It is a Known Error with one or more incidents.
B. It is one or more Known Errors.
C. It is a known cause of one or more disruptions.
D. It is an unknown cause of one or more incidents.
Q: At what time a known error can be identified?
A. When the problem is known
B. When the problem is send to Problem Management
C. When the cause of the problem is known
D. When the problem is resolved
Q: Which of the following is the primary objective of error control?
A. Figure out the details for work-arounds
B. Register and manage Known Errors
C. Recognize and register Known Errors
D. Resolve Known Errors
Q: Which of the following is responsible for resolving the Known Errors?
A. Error resolution
B. Change Management
C. Error default
D. Error control
Q: Which of the following is responsible for Incident Management?
A. Service Desk
B. Service Support
C. Service Delivery
D. Service Level Management
Q: At what point does an Incident turn in to a problem?
A. Never
B. Any time
C. When it is urgent
D. When it is a major Incident
Q: Which of the following processes contains the Performance and Resource Managements?
A. Capacity Management
B. Availability Management
C. Configuration Management
D. Incident Management
Q: Which of the following restores agreed service to the business as quickly as possible?
A. Configuration Management
B. Incident Management
C. Change Management
D. Release Management
Q: Which of the following tasks is performed by Problem Management?
A. Approval of all changes to the Known Error database
B. Coordination of all changes to the IT infrastructure
C. Implementing changes to the IT infrastructure
D. Classification of RFC
Q: Which of the following is required by Major Incidents?
A. Less urgency
B. Less documentation
C. Separate procedures
D. Longer timescales
Q: Which of the following is a resolution process?
A.
B. Configuration Management
C. Capacity Management
D. Incident Management
E. Release Management
Q: What does KEDB stand for?
A. Known Error DataBase
B. Knowledge Error DataBase
C. Kauai Economic Development Board
D. Known Error Data Binding
Q: Which of the following tasks is a Problem Management responsibility?
A. Identify users' need
B. Coordinate all modifications
C. Record incidents for later study
D. Approve all modifications done to the Known Error database
Q: Which of the following is an activity of Proactive Problem Management?
A. Problem identification and recording
B. Trend analysis
C. Error closure
D. Error assessment
Q: Which of the following is the sub process of Problem Management?
A. Incident
B. Selection
C. Research
D. Proactive
Q: What factors should be taken into consideration when assessing the priority of an incident?
A. Urgency and severity
B. Severity and cost
C. Impact and cost
D. Impact and urgency
Q: Which of the following minimizes the number and severity of incidents and problems on the business?
A. Service Level Management
B. Release Management
C. Problem Management
D. Configuration Management
Q: Which of the following conditions is identified by successful diagnosis of the root cause of a problem?
A. Invalid data
B. Data discrepancy
C. Known error
D. Error analysis
Q: Who is the owner of Request Fulfillment?
A. Product manager
B. Service manager
C. Incident manager
D. Process manager
Q: Which of the following activities is used to take place after recording and registering an incident?
A. Classification
B. Matching
C. Restoring
D. Analysis
Q: Which process is liable for recording, controlling, and reporting on versions, attributes, and relationships about components of the IT infrastructure?
A. Service Management
B. Service Asset and Configuration Management
C. Change Management
D. Incident Management
Q: Which of the following is the first step to register an incident?
A. Assign an incident number
B. Determine the priority
C. Perform matching
D. Record the incident time
Q: Which of the following processes is responsible for tracing the underlying cause of errors?
A. Incident Management
B. Error Management
C. Capacity Management
D. Problem Management
Q: Which of the following sequences is used to deal with a problem?
A. Impact
B. Priority
C. Demand
D. Urgency
Q: When should an incident be closed?
A. When the user confirms that the service has been restored
B. When the target resolution time is reached
C. When the technical staff members are confident that it will not recur
D. When desktop support staff members say that the incident is over
Q: Which of the following statements is used to define the best guidance on incident logging?
A. All incidents must be completely logged.
B. Incidents must only be logged if a decision is not instantly available.
C. The Service Manager decides which incidents to log.
D. Only incidents reported to the Service Desk can be logged.
Q: Which of the following is an illustration of Proactive Problem management?
A. A report management process
B. An urgent change
C. A trend analysis
D. A change request
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