NEED ALL 3 QUESTIONS ANSWERED ASAP!! Publicly traded corporations were already required to file their financial statements (audited by an outside CPA firm) with the SEC via pre-SOX legislation, so what real difference did SOX make in this regard, and why? Question 2 Wasn't Enron (as one example) successfully prosecuted under pre-SOX law? In which case, what did SOX actually bring in terms of additional protection and why? Question 3 But if the SOX Act has no enforcement "teeth" (which I suggest is not entirely true, based on the Act itself), what was the point of enacting it? Why not simply put more resources into enforcing pre-SOX law?
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